one day at at time, one understanding at a time, one prayer at a time, one piece of wisdom at a time.
~Russ
~Russ
If there is voltage and current in the coil from the battery, ( lets say 100V @ +1ma) and then we induce more voltage in the coil than we are putting in so that the current is going backwards, (110V @ -1ma) 10.what happens to the magnet field? 11.is it still going in the same direction or is is stopped / nall'd? 12.or is it reversed as the meters say (negative)?
13.If its reversed is the magnetic field also reversed? 14.dose the current need to be going in the correct direction to keep the magnetic field in the same polarity if there is 100V and +1ma already applied? 15.we never changed the polarity of the voltage applied, only the current direction?
all things that are slightly confusion. because yes, you can induce more current and voltage than it takes to run IN THE SAME DIRECTION,
BUT, the current is now going IN THE WRONG DIRECTION.... but yet the magnet still wants to spin? hummm...
that's something to think about, see if each of you can take on this questions. ( i labeled them for you )
~Russ
notes and shots from today attached HERE
The "ring" is just that its a ring between the coils self inductance and self capacitance, but the magnetic field is still there until it decays. so if you short the coil at any time during the ring down the current will still be in the same direction ( current will equal about the same amount of decay on the ring) . allays the case until the magnetic field is gone. The ring its self is the inertia its self of the "gyros" slamming to a stop.
"there is also the issue of the "anomalous" current which appears during the spark.
it is unclear from the photos whether this current appears in the coil, but it has the
proper sigh and magnitude to drive the magnet."
This needs to be looked at more closely. because yes. there is a big current spike. its fast too.
So who is to say that when you short out a self-resonating coil that current will actually start flowing?
Russ,
For me, your question and answer exercise in the previous posting is too difficult to understand. I am assuming it's all related to what the coil is doing as it interacts with the rotating rotor magnet. This is where a timing diagram illustrating the concepts would help. And if you actually were to do a timing diagram you might surprise yourself because then all of the pieces of the jigsaw puzzle have to fit together.
Note during self-resonance the magnetic field completely disappears when the self-capacitance is at the peak voltage.
When you did the self-ringing tests for the coil I am under the impression that you just tapped the big coil for a second with voltage and then disconnected from the big coil and scoped the voltage swing on the coil as it rang at about 118 Hz. Then you worked the formula for LC resonance backwards and knowing the inductance of 4400 Henries you got a self-capacitance of 480 pF.
To get some insight into the amount of energy in the self-resonance, you could take the peak voltage that you observed when self-resonating and calculate the maximum energy stored in the self-capacitance of 480 pF. Then find out what the maximum self-resonant current would be for the 4400 Henry coil based on the same amount of energy.
I an going to guess that the equivalent self-resonant current would be minuscule. So when you say, "so if you short the coil at any time during the ring down the current will still be in the same direction" that may be true but the real question is what is the magnitude of that theoretical current compared to the typical current flow of a few mA through the coil during the normal operation of the pulse motor?
And I stress that this is "theoretical" current because when the coil is self-ringing there is actually no current flowing at each of the two terminals of the coil. So who is to say that when you short out a self-resonating coil that current will actually start flowing?
SS
I agree with you there SS.
correct me if you see errors in this.
If the coil goes into the short with a magnetic field left over from the 'run' (i.e. not totally decayed) then should we not have a static (fixed) potential when we get to the 'short'...(this is assuming the spark has not consumed all the left over field as I put it, if it has destroyed the field then this question is irrelevant).
So if we have got this far and we have a shorted coil, with a potential charge in it, we still have a rotating magnet inducing more voltage into the coil and along with that induced voltage a current...
have you any views on what starts to manifest from the shorted coil relationship to the rotating magnet.
regards
The reasion I say that current keeps goong in the same direction is that I have seen this time and time again on my scope shots. I'll post some.
Don't forget. Matter in motion tends to stay in motion. This IS the magnetic field. It has mass via inertia. This is why the current still goes in the same direction.
Cool, so the voltage does grow??? so we have current.
from the book, Hastings
"my opinion is that an excess charge is left in the coil when the input voltage is cut off,
at this point a spark appears and a huge induced E.M.F is created in the coil.
this E.M.F SHOULD disappear quickly ( showing up as a spike). However, the High
Voltage remains, Having the Period of the moving magnet. this indicates that the magnet
is "Pushing" an excess charge around in the coil, and this appears as excess current when
contact is re-established with the battery. "
while its ringing, you can " push" the voltage to one side. this i have seen. i need to look at this more closely.
The fact that it lasts the entire period of the moving magnet is the induction. this also can be observed.
This could be the SRF or the induction. Depending on the coil and the RPM. more thought here is needed.
~Russ
while its ringing, you can " push" the voltage to one side. this i have seen. i need to look at this more closely.
from that last link your statement above relates to "short" or "run"
sorry i just want to be clear on this russ...
and I do second SS statement when we are batting statements about it would be great to emphasis where the statement relates to 'run' or 'short'
to keep me lol if not all others in the picture clearly.
Regards
If the coil goes into the short with a magnetic field left over from the 'run' (i.e. not totally decayed) then should we not have a static (fixed) potential when we get to the 'short'...(this is assuming the spark has not consumed all the left over field as I put it, if it has destroyed the field then this question is irrelevant).
So if we have got this far and we have a shorted coil, with a potential charge in it, we still have a rotating magnet inducing more voltage into the coil and along with that induced voltage a current...
have you any views on what starts to manifest from the shorted coil relationship to the rotating magnet.
So if we have got this far and we have a shorted coil, with a potential charge in it
So if we have got this far and we have a shorted coil, with a potential charge in it, we still have a rotating magnet inducing more voltage into the coil and along with that induced voltage a current...
have you any views on what starts to manifest from the shorted coil relationship to the rotating magnet.
See the white board a few posts back. I have the pk - pk voltage there in green. You can do that calualtion.
This is why the current still gose in the same direction. Even while it is ringing.
Suppose we imagine an ideal inductor with no resistance in the wires. Then a general statement is that when there is a DC current flowing through the inductor then there is no voltage across the inductor. So making a short across the inductor would apply in this case. It's only when the current is changing through the inductor with respect to time do you see voltage across the two terminals of the inductor. Since an inductor is a current-based device it is also appropriate to say that an inductor is never a source of voltage per se. Rather, when an inductor is connected to a voltage source and absorbing energy, it's the voltage source that determines the voltage across the inductor. Of course that seems like a sensible statement.
SS
I know this is what is taught in EE, but it is horroriblly incorrect. It is pure fantasy to say an inductor has no resistance. It is not appropriate to say that an inductor can not be a source of voltage, just as much that a voltage can go to infinity during certain conditions. How can you blindly accept these falsehoods?